Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
14.06.2025 09:22
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Why did my ex move on so quickly?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Which feels physically better for guys: vaginal sex or anal sex?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.